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Why did the European monarchs of the same dynasty tend to have the same names (Peter/George/Edward I, II, III, etc.) whereas this wasn't the case in China/Japan? Why don't we have Emperor Taizong II of China for example or Meiji IV of Japan (both of whom were extremely successfull rulers) ?

by /u/hrdlg1234 in /r/AskHistorians

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