StoryNote logo

Do we have any evidence that psychopathy/sociopathy was more prevalent in the population in previous centuries, and could that explain some moral shifts?

by /u/ObsidianOrangutan in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 3

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.