The Catholic Church and noble families once owned almost all land in Europe, but this is no longer the case. How and why was land redistributed or sold to individuals, families, and businesses in constitutional monarchies such as the United Kingdom, where the noble families still exist?
by /u/[deleted] in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 8
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list