StoryNote logo

Why didn't Christian Rome or Early Medieval Europe ever develop into an outright theocracy headed by a clerical figure in "direct communication with God?" Why the consistent separation between royalty and clergy, despite their mutual depending on each other?

by /u/spermwhalejail in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 0

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.