Were scholars in 18th/early 19th century Europe/America aware there were urban civilizations (such as the Kush) in the parts of Africa they would have considered "black", before there were any in northern Europe? If "yes" how did they square that with the "naturally inferior" argument for slavery?
by /u/grapp in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 5
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list