StoryNote logo

How common was naval Impressment during the 17th-19th centuries, and why was it not considered a type of slavery?

by /u/LateNightPhilosopher in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 21

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.