StoryNote logo

When the Romans conquered other Indo-European speakers (such as Celtic and Germanic peoples), did they have any sense of the now well-established fact that such peoples' languages were related to their own?

by /u/JJVMT in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 10

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.