I've read that, at the Tehran conference of 1943, when Churchill and Roosevelt agreed not to open a front in the Balkans, they essentially conceded most of Eastern Europe to the soviets. Why would they make such a serious concession?
by /u/[deleted] in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 5
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list