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How come some people groups in Muslim empires (e.g. Pomaks, Albanians, Bosniaks) converted to Islam without adopting the language of their conquerors while other people groups (e.g. Maronites, Assyrians, Copts) have largely adopted the language of their conquers but have not converted to Islam?

by /u/UshankaCzar in /r/AskHistorians

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