StoryNote logo

The Sexual Offences Act 1967 partially decriminalised homosexuality in England and Wales. Why was Scotland not included given that it did not have a devolved parliament at the time? And why then did it take thirteen more years for The Crime Justice (Scotland Act) 1980 to do this?

by /u/LeChevalierMal-Fait in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 47

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.