StoryNote logo

Why did the anglicized spellings of many words originating in the Muslim and Hindu world change some time after the turn of the 20th century, even though in most cases the pronunciations did not?

by /u/BrokenEye3 in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 9

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.