The Ottoman Empire had many palimpsestic and pluralistic institutions, particularly their court system, which was notorious for serving Muslims and non-Muslims. Why wouldn't Christians and Jews utilize their own courts instead of those of the Ottomans? Were the Ottoman courts more impartial?
by /u/[deleted] in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 5
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list