Was there such a dramatic gap of infantry capabilities before the gunpowder-warfare-era? For example, could the Egyptian infantry from the "Old Kingdom" (2686–2181 BC) stand a chance against "Later Roman" (284–476 AD) infantry with similar number of combatants?
by /u/Ori_553 in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 0
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list