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Socrates' claim to be the wisest Greek because he knew that he knew nothing is something mainly found in Plato's Apology, whereas in Xenophon's, he claims that the oracle said 'no man was more free than I, or more just, or more prudent.' Why do we normally go with Plato's version and not Xenophon's?

by /u/EnclavedMicrostate in /r/AskHistorians

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