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In 1919, the Treaty of Versailles was signed, which included a “War Guilt” clause, where Germany was forced to claim they were guilty for the First World War. From a purely historical context, was Imperial Germany truly the one at fault for the First World War? If so, why? And if not, then who?

by /u/Keralia in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 15

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