StoryNote logo

To Ancient Greeks, were all non-Greeks "barbarians," or only those they deemed culturally less sophisticated? For example, were Persians (in no way less sophisticated than Greeks, only different) "barbarians"? When did the term gain a connotation of cultural inferiority rather than mere difference?

by /u/JJVMT in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 43

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.