My understanding is that between the end of the early medieval period and midway through the start of the renaissance (say 1100-1500) the rate of political change in Europe was close to constant. Unless my premise is misinformed, why didn't the black death affect this?
by /u/[deleted] in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 6
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list