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In Total War: Rome II, 'Celtic', 'Germanic' and 'Balkan' are distinct and mutually exclusive cultural groups, but how dissimilar would peoples from, say, Gaul, Illyria, and modern-day Germany have been in the 3rd-1st centuries BCE, e.g. in terms of material culture, language and so on?

by /u/EnclavedMicrostate in /r/AskHistorians

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