StoryNote logo

Why are "Western" cereal grains (wheat/rye/barley/oats) mainly ground into flour, but rice eaten whole? Is the difference due to cultural and historical reasons, or because of taste?

by /u/daveboat in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 374

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.