Did Upper-class in Europe during the medieval to the modern era have there children learning the the lingua franca of the time (whether Latin, French.. etc) and would not teach them the native language where there from until later or never at all?
by /u/lj0zh123 in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 3
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list