I understand that European royals only began attending universities fairly recently (i.e., not before the 19th century). Is that true? If so, why was that? Was it because they could get the same quality of education, but from the comfort of their palaces and without having to mix with commoners?
by /u/JJVMT in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 5
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list