I know remarriage was common among widow(er)s of all ages in Medieval Europe. Was it deemed wrong or sinful for persons who remarried after the age of fertility to have sex (since they couldn't claim their sex was for reproductive purposes) ? Was there any divide between clerical and lay opinion?
by /u/JJVMT in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 11
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list