It's said that the Balkans were the economic center of the Ottoman Empire, with Anatolia being more marginally populated and less important economically - however, I've heard that it was the opposite with the Byzantines. What accounts for this change?
by /u/Kiyoshimo in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 29
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list 