StoryNote logo

I've read in several books that the British created the zamindar class in the Indian subcontinent by misunderstanding jagir grants (the right to collect revenue from an area) as meaning the jagirdar in question was the landowner. A jagir doesn't seem like a difficult concept to grasp. Is it true?

by /u/jurble in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 11

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.