StoryNote
Log in
|
Sign up
Why did some mid-20th century English writers intentionally favour "Anglo-Saxon" vocabulary?
by
/u/Sodarn-Hinsane
in
/r/AskHistorians
Read on Reddit
Upvotes:
110
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
--
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
Add this post to a custom list
StoryNote