StoryNote logo

Why is it that the CIA interfered with South America so heavily for relatively benign progressive policies, but Europe was left pretty much completely untouched?

by /u/IndustreeBaby in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 1790

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.