StoryNote logo

Why is it that earlier german historical figures (Francis I of Austria, Frederick the Great of Prussia, etc.) seem to be known by an anglicized version of their names, while later ones (Wilhelm II, Franz Joseph, etc.) are known by their German name?

by /u/frederick1740 in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 12

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.