When the Jurchens/Manchus began their conquest of China in the late 16th Century, they had no major technological advantage over the 13th century Mongols. During the 300 years of The Ming Dynasty, why did the Chinese military doctrine not evolve to effectively deal with nomadic cavalry tactics?
by /u/[deleted] in /r/AskHistorians
Upvotes: 48
Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list