StoryNote logo

Why was constitutional government successful in England and the Netherlands during the Age of Absolutism, but not is states such as Poland-Lithuania or the Holy Roman Empire?

by /u/Laturnich in /r/AskHistorians

Upvotes: 5

Favorite this post:
Mark as read:
Your rating:
Add this post to a custom list

StoryNote©

Reddit is a registered trademark of Reddit, Inc. Use of this trademark on our website does not imply any affiliation with or endorsement by Reddit, Inc.