/r/AskHistorians
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Why do we, in English, refer to countries by names that are completely different than their native language names? When did this start and has there been change over time?
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What caused so many recreational drugs to become illegal in the past century, and why is that illegality an international norm?
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How did the Ancient Romans keep rrack of a person's status as Free or Slave or Citizen or Not? Did they have identity papers?
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In the tv series "The Good Place," the only notable ancient philosopher in their analog of Heaven is Hypatia of Alexandria. (The others mentioned by name all defended slavery.) How well did her philosophy and conduct conform to 21C Anglosphere social mores?
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It's the 9th Century and I've just put some cakes in my oven when King Alfred turns up. How do I know he is who he says he is, and how much reverence would a peasant like me afford him? How would contact amongst the public compare to meeting the Queen today?
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When did Byzantine culture begin to think of the Western Roman provinces as independent kingdoms as opposed to occupied provinces to which it still had de jure rights or claims?
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Modern English is as far as I'm aware the only European language that uses the Latin alphabet without any diacritical marks. Is there a historical reason for this?
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Two separate sections of the Bible describe a male visitor(s) arriving to a town late at night, and being beseiged in a house by mob of rapists demanding to violate them, and the owners offering their own daughters instead. How often a problem was this in the Levant and would it play out like that?
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