/r/AskHistorians
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I've heard the claim that in the middle ages, married women were "encouraged" to take female lovers rather than male since there would be no risk of pregnancy. Is there any truth to this at all?
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Why is the common wealth countries like Canada and Australia looks at the British Empire with such respect but countries like India (I'm indian) and US looks at their rule as tyrannical? Like currencies of Canada and Australia have the queen on them. Were the British simply nice to them?
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Genocide versus Genocides: What is the comparative utility of approaching what was done to the indigenous peoples of the Americas from 1492 onwards as a genocide, in the singular, versus many smaller campaigns of genocide? Are they even in opposition are are they complementary ways to understand it?
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A professor of mine said the concept of boredom was a 19th century "invention" of the bourgeoisie. What does this mean exactly?
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