/r/AskHistorians
How was the argument "no taxation without representation" justified to revolutionaries for American independence when the right to vote would still be highly restricted to wealthy gentry? Has the meaning of "representation" changed?
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In Stephen King's novel "IT", Eddie's mother mentions that the neatness of a house owned by a couple of bachelors means they must be "queers". Was this a common stereotype in the late 1950s?
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Why was there such a long period without the construction of pyramids in ancient Egypt? Khendjers reign was around 1760BC and and the next pyramid wasn't erected until 721BC by Piye?
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Were slaves in the Roman Empire expected to have the same prospects for the afterlife as everyone else?
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