/r/askhistorians
The multiocular O appears in only a single Old Church Slavonic phrase, “серафими мн҄оꙮ҄читїи҄” (many-eyed seraphim), in a single copy of Psalms from 1429. Why is it considered historically important enough for Unicode inclusion when it just looks like the result of an old monk adding artistic flair?
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What is it that has allowed anti-intellectualism to continue in the 20th and 21st century in the United States, when there's been such a strong push for everyone to receive a college education?
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Why didn't current republics of Russia, like Tatarstan, Chechnya, Dagestan, etc., become independent countries when the USSR collapsed, similar to Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, etc?
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I'm an Ancient Greek woman in an increasingly desperate besieged city. What am I expected to do? NSFW
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