/r/askhistorians
I hear often that Hitler's rise to power was made possible by "conservatives" who though they could control him. Why didn't these "conservatives" stage a coup against Hitler when he proved uncontrollable?
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Why was The Empire of Japan particually vicious during WW2 , or is it due to propaganda that people think that?
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Why were some German companies closely tied to the Nazis (Daimler-Benz, for example) allowed to continue after the war, instead of being broken up like IG Farben?
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During the events of 13 Vendémiaire, Napoleon Bonaparte helped squash a revolt of 25,000 royalists in Paris. How exactly was a 25,000 strong force of royalist rebels able to even -reach- and assemble within Paris in the first place?
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Why didn't the French Navy hand over their ships to the British at Mers-el-Kébir during WW2, after having signed an armistice with Germany? Instead the Royal Navy had to destroy the French ships to prevent them falling into Germany's hands.
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