/r/askhistorians
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In 1542, Bartolomé de las Casas wrote "A Short Account of the Destruction of the Indies" advocating against the Mistreatment of Natives. How popular were his opinions in Spain, and how much of an effect did his publication actually make in the Americas?
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How would a couple living in a time and place such as Ancient Rome go about proving to someone skeptical that they were, in fact, legally married to each other? Was there some kind of ancient marriage registry office issuing licenses and doing annulments and divorces back then?
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Since Sweden was traditionally the most left-wing leaning Western nation and not in NATO, why didn't the West stage a coup or something similar like they did with Mohammad Mosaddegh?
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