/r/askhistorians
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There's a meme going around alleging that "There was a 22-year window in which a samurai could have sent a fax to Abraham Lincoln." I have multiple questions.
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Why do English language speakers (Americans like myself) frequently use German to describe Germany during WWII?
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Currently in the U.S., poor whites predominantly live in rural areas and poor blacks and poor Latinos predominantly live in inner cities. What historical factors and events led to this being the case? Has it always been this way?
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When Lee surrendered his army to Grant at Appomattox, Grant allowed Lee's army of about 28,000 to disband and go home. How did 28,000 men from different towns leave a single area and where did they go?
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Italians were considered non-whites until 1945, did the KKK harass them ? If yes, did the Mafia ever fight back the KKK ?
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Why are the surnames "West" and "North" very common in english speaking countries, but "East" and "South" are considerably less common?
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We have heard the term “Russian oligarchs” so often in the news lately for obvious reasons. Apparently this means a wealthy and politically connected person which carries specific connotations in post-USSR Russia. Why isn’t this term used in western countries?
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Switzerland had an impressive military history up until the early 16th century, at which point they adopted their famous neutrality. What caused them to adopt this stance, and how have they been able to maintain it through 500 years of European wars?
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