/r/askhistorians
The English civil wars of the 17th century didn't seem to have outside intervention from continental Europe. Why was this? Why didn't an outside force intervene on the behalf of the monarchy or parliamentarians?
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Why were monocles a thing? I understand that one eye can be weaker than the other. But I can't imagine that a piece of glass a few millimetres away from your eyeball would be very comfortable or even work well. We're eyeglasses considered unfashionable or even low class?
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The Soviets produced over 65,000 T-34 (all models) during ww2 despite relocating entire factories to the Urals. Why were the German totals so much less?
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What was the fallout in Great Britain, especially in King George's court, like following their defeat in the American Revolution?
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In movies like Braveheart, leaders often give inspiring speeches. Assuming this was accurate, how would thousands of foot soldiers hear this leader right before battle?
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I once heard that, even at the height of the empire, British mapmakers would draw Britain on the edges of maps, indicating they thought they were as far as one could get from the center of the Christian world, and that this played an outsize role in the British psyche. Is this a credible argument?
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When and how did Arabic replace Coptic as the primary language of Egypt? Why was Arabic able to displace Coptic when Greek didn't, despite nearly 1,000 years of Greek and Roman domination in Egypt?
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