/r/askhistorians
I once heard that during the 1348-50 Bubonic Plague outbreak, European Jewish communities suffered less severely than the general population due to good hygiene. Is there any truth to this?
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How did the Academy of Fine Arts Vienna (if they did) react to Hitler's rise of power after rejecting him twice?
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At the peak of slavery in the continental United States, what percentage of the population would have owned one or more slaves?
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Why did the Troubles actually start? Was the UK actually an oppressive brutal state as late as 1980s/90s?
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