/r/askhistorians
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Would the Byzantine army of AD 1114 have been more or less organised than the Roman army AD 114? How much had the structure of the Roman military changed in that 1000 years?
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Per Russell Brand's stand-up; did Gandhi let his wife die by relying on Vedic medicine, and then, himself, accept Western medical treatment when he came down with a similar ailment?
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If aragorn was such a great king, how was it so simple for his kingdom to become a lesser partner in a union under Castile?
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