/r/askhistorians
Historians rightly point out that Cortés' invasion of Mexico was incomplete and only possible thanks to native allies. Yet, can we explain the fact that Tlaxcala saw a relatively small force of foreigners as an opportunity to rebel without admitting military superiority on the part of the Spanish?
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How did Welsh survive the English conquest and English rule over Wales? Why did it survive so well compared to other Celtic languages such as Irish, Scottish Gaelic, Manx, Cornish and Breton?
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Why didn’t other Iberian languages like Catalan, Mirandese, Galician, Basque language, etc spread to Latin America? Why only Castilian Spanish and Portuguese?
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Aside from the Greeks and Romans were there other cultures and societies who were okay with homosexuality ?
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When the Ottoman Caliphate was abolished in 1924, did Sunni Muslims still consider it an important religious authority? What were some of the long-term consequences of its abolition?
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Why is the wife of a King always called a Queen but the husband of a Queen not always called a King?
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