/r/askhistorians
Why did Republican Romans dress so lightly, while medieval Italians wore seemingly a lot of clothes, while living in the same climate?
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Did the Catholic Church speak out against the fascist governments of Italy and Nazi Germany or make any attempt to help Jewish people during the holocaust?
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Despite the misconception that the Maya disappeared long ago, Chan Santa Cruz, an independent Maya state, was not conquered by the Mexican government until 1901. But how were 19th-century Mayan states ruled? How much were they based on pre-conquest tradition?
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Why did the sikhs not get a sikh country during the 1947 partition even though before british rule there was a sikh kingdom?
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In “THE ADVENTURE OF THE NOBLE BACHELOR” Sherlock Holmes says that he believes that in the future, Americans and Brits will again be joined in a world wide country which flag is a combination of the union jack and stars and stripes. Was the idea of a united UK and US common in Victorian England?
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Who was healthier: a rich city-dweller in 1st century Europe or a rich a city-dweller in 11th century Europe? What about a *poor* city-dweller in 1st century Europe compared to a *poor* a city-dweller in 11th century Europe?
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The Darien Gap of Panama is so inhospitable to human settlement that even in 2021 we still cannot manage to build so much as a highway across it. In pre-columbian societies was it also known as a "border" between empires where few dared to travel?
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