/r/askhistorians
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Has a nation's translator ever skewed an important translation? Have any major events been avoided or created this way?
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Why did Opium addict and oppress the Chinese so much, while neighboring countries such as Japan and Korea seemed relatively unaffected?
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Why wasn't the use of semi-automatic rifles as widespread (besides the US) among those involved in WWII?
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I'm an "Aryan" citizen of occupied Europe in 1942, I have just murdered a Jewish man over a petty squabble in broad daylight in front of a local (non German) police station, what becomes of me?
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