/r/askhistorians
Why are there so many "Smiths" out there? Were there just a shitload of blacksmiths in Medieval times or did the blacksmiths just produce a prodigious amount of progeny? OR Why is Smith such a common surname?
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Towards the end of WW2, why did the Nazis not resort to chemical weapons on their retreat all the way to Berlin, especially on the eastern front? Did they have some sort of moral reasoning?
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In the Bible, the Legendary King Solomon is said to have 700 wives and 300 concubines. With that many wives, what is the purpose of distinguishing the concubines separately?
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The collapse of Yugoslavia is described as inevitable but its creation was extremely popular post-WWI; What caused the decline of Yugoslavian Nationalism for regional/ethnic nationalism?
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When Aaron Burr learned that Alexander Hamilton may have intended not to fire his shot or aimed to miss Burr during their fatal 1804 duel, he described it as "Contemptible, if true." Why would choosing not to fire or to deliberately miss be considered shameful in a pistol duel?
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What kind of dances did Romans have? Were there dances that the higher classes were expected to know like ballroom dancing in the 18th and 19th centuries?
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To what degree could ancient/medieval smiths reach the weapon quality that is shown to us in modern entertainment?
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When and why did it become the norm in society that women have long hair and men have short hair? Is it purely stylistic or was it circumstantial?
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