/r/askhistorians
A popular conception made about World War 1 is that the use of antiquated tactics combined with modern technology resulted in the devastation the war was well known for. In the Western Front, were trenches the most effective strategy for fighting, or was it 'antiquated' given the technology?
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When did it cease to become a given that the average English reader had a working knowledge of French? Many of my older books contain entire sentences of untranslated French, which the reader appears to be expected to be able to understand.
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I have often heard that capitalism is not a particularly valid word for preindustrial settings; what differentiates Rome's private-property based, market economy in which workers are paid wages from Capitalism?
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How expensive would spices have been in the Dutch republic in 1650? Would middle-class people have had access to say, cinnamon, tea or nutmeg, or were these only accessible to very rich people?
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Did the opening of the Suez Canal have a large and detrimental impact on the economy of Cape Town, and was there any opposition to the project in Cape Colony at the time?
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Why were the western regions of the Roman Empire always less developed and rich in comparison to the eastern ones? Why didn't this change after centuries of Roman rule over them?
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Diesel engines were invented earlier, last longer, and produce more energy per liter/gallon. If all this is true, how did gasoline become the standard for most automobiles?
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