/r/askhistorians
Alfred the Great codified English law in "The Doom Book"in the early 890s, which stated that the same law applied to all persons - rich and poor. Was this common during the early middle ages? Or was the Doom Book represent a new development in establishing the rule of law?
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You know that bit in king kong where the biplanes are flying around him. were there really people on stand by for if New York needed air defence? and if there was would they still have been using biplanes in the 1933?
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Why is there this new cult appreciation of Tesla? Was he really as amazing as people make him out to be?
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My friend said that Roman slaves had more vacation time than the average American, this sounds like rubbish, but I don't know enough about it to disprove it, help!
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