/r/askhistorians
Why did Marijuana/Coca never become a European/Colonial cash crop? Why did it never gain traction or have a market in Europe like Coffee, Rum & Tobacco?
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In age-organized systems of male/male sexual relationships like Greek paiderastia and Japanese shudō, how did the relationship end when the eromenos or wakashū came of age?
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Why did the large number of plane hijackings and bombings in the 70's-90's not result in the sweeping safety measures that resulted from 9/11?
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John Ehrlichman had told an author that Nixon's drug policy was motivated primarily to attack his opponents in the antiwar and black communities. Given his hatred of Nixon, how do historians approach a source like this, given he could have ulterior motives?
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I recently read how many descendents of the nobles in the Norman invasion still own tons of land in England. So my question is, are there examples of families who have owned land stretching back further, say to the Roman times? Carolingians? Ancient China, India? Or anywhere else in the world?
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I recently just watched Enemy At The Gates (2001), and there is a scene where a Nazi officer (I can only speculate) is saying that any Russians who surrender will be treated better than their own officers do. Is this accurate? Or did the Nazi's treat Russian POW's horribly?
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