/r/askhistorians
Why is D-Day always called the second front when the Italian campaign had been going on for a year at the time?
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Thomas Edward Lawrence (of Arabia) declined a knighthood offered to him by King George V in 1918 for his services in the Arab Revolt. Why? It is said that it was because Britain, in the end, betrayed the Arabs but is that the real reason or were there other motives?
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Asking again, but why did Chinese and Indian armies continue to wear body armor into the 1800s while it was all but extinct in Europe except for some niche heavy cavalrymen by 1700?
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The Ottoman Empire can be traced to the year 1299 and was more than 600 years old when WW1 started. I ask then, was this antique empire really on the verge of collapse after all those centuries of existing? Was the empire condemned or was the Great War directly responsible for the collapse?
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Slavery in England faded out of practice within the first century and a half of the Norman conquest. Was this a result of cultural or political will, or something else? Was it unusual in the Europe of the time?
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"Life of Brian" drew notable religious protests when it was released; it was even banned in some countries for alleged 'blasphemy'. But it is also for a good part a biting parody on 70s left-wing revolutionary groups. Have there been protests or other reactions from that side?
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Is it true that ‘12 Years A Slave’ is mostly a fake story as claimed by historian Michelle Haas in “200 Years A Fraud”?
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