/r/askhistorians
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Why did the Spanish side of South America split into different countries (Peru, Argentina, Colombia, Chile etc.) once it gained independence from Spain, while the Portuguese side didn't and became just one whole country known as Brazil?
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In the movie, "Mary, Queen of Scots," both Queen Mary and Queen Elizabeth I are depicted as having a diverse court (see description for examples). This was refreshing, but also surprising. How racially diverse were their courts, and was this typical in 16th century Britain and Europe?
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It's the 1300s, England, and after one too many ales I've suggested publicly that my hog could do a better job of running the country than the king (and we slaughtered the hog last winter.) How much trouble am I in?
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