/r/askhistorians
Why do early parts of the Old Testament seem so focused on sexual impropriety? Was there some cultural context for this kind of specificity?
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Did Benedict Arnold regret his decision to join the British after the United States won the Revolutionary War?
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Suppose I'm a butcher in London around AD1000 and it's a particularly cold winter (below freezing). Would I need keep salting my meat like usual or would I be aware I can just store it outside untill it warms up again?
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