/r/askhistorians
Questions about possible myths about Louis XIV - did he really (virtually) never bathe? Did his courtiers really pay homage to him by wearing bloody diapers?
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Hirohito often gets lumped in with Hitler as an evil dictator in popular parlance, but to what degree can we actually lay the blame for Japanese atrocities like Nanking and Bataan on him?
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Did empty houses exist in Ancient Greece or Rome or other places for the sole purpose of economic speculation?
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Why did Asia (at least when it comes to casual styles) adopt Western clothing? How come "traditional" Asian wear did not evolve into the 20th century while classic European clothing (suits, button up shirts, Oxford shoes etc) keeps evolving and modernising and is still very relevant today?
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The Norse people were shown to be capable raiders, especially in the British Isles. The Anglo-Saxons despite divided were socially and militarily organised, why did they, or others, never seek or attempt to attack Scandinavia?
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In Europa Universalis IV, the price of fish drops slightly after the Protestant Reformation because apparently Protestants ate less of it due thanks to being able to eat meat on Fridays. Is this at all accurate? How much did the Reformation actually affect European cuisine?
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Tea was not introduced to Europe until the early modern period, but how common were herbal infusions (herbal "tea") before that? Were they mostly reserved for medicinal purposes, or were they consumed for pleasure?
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It is widely known here that the mediaeval aversion to bathing is a myth. But what was mediaeval bathhouse culture like? How common were baths? How affordable were they? Were they merely places to wash, or were they also places for socialising (like the Roman baths of olden days)?
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During the Atlantic Slave Trade, were there any African nations that had the military capacity to harass/disrupt European slavers and slave ships?
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